View this post on Hive: Neat Math Multiplication Tip!
7 years ago by mes (67)
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because (a*a) = a^2
and ( (a+1) * (a-1) ) = (a^2 - 1^2) = a^2 - 1
[3rd binomial formula]
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Great work on the proof!!
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WARNING! The comment by david-ams below links to a known phishing site that could steal your account. Do not open links from users you do not trust. Do not provide your private keys to any third party websites.
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Thanks for the heads up!
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Great tip! I love "formulas" like this
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