Hello Steemians! I had a classmate in my high school who tried to convince me and proof that 1 is equal to 2, i.e. 1=2. The fallacious proof goes thus:
By factorizing the left hand side and using sum of difference square for left hand side, we have:
Dividing both side by (x-x), gives:
Dividing both side by x, to get:
What is wrong with this proof? Can we call this a false proof or class fallacy?
Is this really a proof? As for me, I dont know. What about you?
Please drop your comment below.
It's a wrong proof. You can't divide by x-x since x-x=0 and you can't devide by 0!
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