But when you say the "common voter", was there really such a thing? If men without property and women were commonly barred, as were non-whites in general, was there a "common" vote to be catered to? From Wikipedia:
The United States Constitution did not originally define who was eligible to vote, allowing each state to determine who was eligible. In the early history of the U.S., most states allowed only white male adult property owners to vote.[1][2][3] Freed slaves could vote in four states.[4] Men without property and women were largely prohibited from voting. Women could vote in New Jersey (provided they could meet the property requirement) and in some local jurisdictions in other northern states. Non-white Americans could also vote in these jurisdictions, provided they could meet the property requirement. By 1856, white men were allowed to vote in all states regardless of property ownership, although requirements for paying tax remained in five states.
I would assume there would be plenty of small farmers with property for example.
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Something that we're not allowed to talk about is voting standards. There really are good reasons to strictly limit who gets to vote, and IMO WAAAAY too many people are allowed to vote these days.
Why are people on welfare and/or those who don't work or pay taxes allowed to vote? Or govt. workers/contractors? Or people w/sub-90 IQ's? Or people under the age of 25 (who, these days, are more-or-less still children)? Or, shoot, even women (who generally are less inclined towards reason or serious politics than men are)? Why is the vote of someone who pays little-to-no taxes worth the same as someone who pays million$? Shit, Leftists don't even want people to have to provide proof of RESIDENCY/CITIZENSHIP anymore even!
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