Thats true, legal rules are different across various jurisdictions. But these are more so rules by expressed or implied social contracts. Not strictly speaking the same as law. When there's no consistent way to apply a law, in the context said to be applicable (by time / place), doesn't that show there's an absence of rule of law or absence of law all together? If it's one rule for you and one rule for me and another for whomever else comes along and that changes from moment to moment, there's really no rules being applied. Even doing that with just a relationship of two people is unworkable.
RE: How do we know a law is really a law?
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How do we know a law is really a law?