The West has been violating the agreement between the Reagan administration and Gorbachev - that the West would not encroach on and threaten Russia after Gorbachev called an end to the Cold War. Why did the West violate that agreement? Lust for wealth and control over resources and various populations seems to be the short answer.
I remember 2013 when Putin stopped the US from bombing Syria based on what was most likely a false flag chemical attack against Syrian civilians blamed on Syria’s Bashar al-Assad - which was a disappointment to global Zionism and the fake War on Terrorism which was preplanned in the 1990’s and year 2000 to advance Israel’s regional strategy - so they conveniently used the 9-11 attacks as the excuse to launch that still ongoing series of war crimes. And why aren’t we hearing about Israel bombing Syria at will with impunity over what is nearly the last decade and up to this very day? But Russia defending their interests according to standards set by the West? Oh no, hypocrites can’t tolerate that.
There was also a loan from Russia, accepted by the Ukrainian President in 2013 that was superior to the globalist IMF offer. That was it, and it was time for the globalists proxy US government to activate the Ukraine neoNazis they funded and groomed to the tune of $5 Billion US tax dollars over years immediately prior. So were they all preparing for an eventual overthrow of the Ukraine “if necessary”? Well it seems they were going to keep pushing Russia until Russia reacted. It took quite an effort but now we see reams of censorship and propaganda blaming Putin’s Russia for the entire affair.
There’s a good discussion in the video above starting after minute 9:30 about the events that led up to Russia’s invasion.
I’m not sure where you’re at with all of this. Right or wrong, this in part is some of my current understanding.